The question has been presented:
"Why does God give humans the ability to speak in the language of angels?"
1 Corinthians 13:1 - If I speak with the languages of men and of angels, but don't have love, I have become sounding brass, or a clanging cymbal. -- World English.
Many claims are made about what is stated in 1 Corinthians 13:1 concerning "I speak with the languages of men of angels". In the question above, evidently by "angels" is meant the spirit beings who are always able to see the face of God. -- Matthew 18:10.
Some have claimed that by "angels" here is meant men who have special ability to speak as public speakers, applying the Greek word for "angels" as meaning "messengers". This, however, is evidently not what Paul meant, as can be seen by the context.
Some have claimed that it is speaking "unknown" tongues spoken by means of the Holy Spirit, or as many prefer the Holy Ghost. Usually, 1 Corinthians 14:2 as though it is speaking of what Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 13.
For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries. -- 1 Corinthians 14:2, King James Verion.
The above is often interpreted to mean that if one has the "gift" of speaking unknown tongues, such as one has the gift of speaking the tongues of angels, and that no one can understand what is being spoken. This author once attended such a meeting when the pastor began to alleged speak in an "unknown tongue" by means of the Holy Spirit. The pastor came to me and prayed speaking in such an alleged "unknown tongue". Knowing that I could say "Amen" to such a prayer that I did not understand, I silently presented my own prayer. After the service was over, I asked the pastor if he understood what he was saying while he was praying on my behalf. The pastor stated, that only tghe Holy Spirit understands what was being said, and I was given 1 Corinthians 14:2 and Romans 8:23 as alleged scriptgures supporting this. In other words, the pastor was disclaiming any understanding of the what was stated.
The King James Version, however, using the expression "unknown tongue" in reference to a what is often called a "foreign language", meaning that such a language may be "unknown" in a congregation that does not speak such a language. In other words, if I, being a speaker of English, should go to a congregation what speaks Spanish, and no one knows English, my language would be "unknown" to that congregation.
Nevertheless, there is actually no scripture that says that God gives anyone the ability to speak in the language of angels. Paul mentions the "languages of men and of angels" in 1 Corinthians 13:1, but he does not say God had given him or anyone else the ability to speak in the language of the angels.
Paul was speaking hypothetically, that is, "if" he could speak with the language of men and of angels. Paul did not say in 1 Corinthians 13:1 that he could do either, although later Paul did say that he spoke in various languages of men. -- 1 Corinthians 14:18,
It appears in 1 Corinthians 13:1, however, that he is using a form of figurative exaggeration in order to emphasize the point that speaking in any language is meaningless without love. Paul made his argument more forceful by exaggeration in contrasts.
Similarly, Paul did not say that he did not have love, but continues to speak hypothetically.
Furthermore, he is not saying that if he did not have love, that he was literally a "sounding brass, or a clanging cymbal." Again, he is speaking figuratively.
We have links to more studies related to Speaking in Tongues at:
https://ransomforall.blogspot.com/p/tongues.html
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