Page 9, paragraph 1, with scriptural references added:
THE TITLE of this series of Studies – "The Divine Plan of the Ages," (Ephesians 3:11, Diaglott) suggests a progression in the Divine arrangement, foreknown to our God and orderly. (Ephesians 1:9-11; 1 Peter 1:2) We believe the teachings of Divine revelation can be seen to be both beautiful and harmonious from this standpoint and from no other. The period in which sin is permitted has been a dark night to humanity (Isaiah 60:2), never to be forgotten; but the glorious day of righteousness and divine favor, to be ushered in by Messiah, who, as the Sun of Righteousness, shall arise and shine fully and clearly into and upon all, bringing healing and blessing (Malachi 4:2), will more than counterbalance the dreadful night of weeping, sighing, pain, sickness and death, in which the groaning creation has been so long. "Weeping may endure for a night, but joy cometh in the MORNING." -- Psalm 30:5.Comments:
Westcott & Hort Interlinear
Ephesians 3:11
kata prothesin twn aiwnwn heen epoieesen en
ACCORDING TO PURPOSE OF THE AGES WHICH [PURPOSE] HE MADE IN
2596 4286 3588 0165 3739 4160 1722
tw christw ieesou tw kuriw heemwn
THE CHRIST JESUS THE LORD OF US,
3588 5547 2424 3588 2962 1473_8
According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord.
This would view the Greek word aiōnōn as meaning eternity, which hides the fact that in the Greek the word is plural, not singular. Thus, the Diaglott renders it as “ages” -- plural. Recognizing this, we realize that Paul was writing about more than one age. Thus, we believe that the Diaglott is more accurate in its rendering than most translations.
Some object to the use of the English word “plan”, claiming that it signifies a possibility of failure. Thus they prefer the rendering “purpose”. Many translations render the verse similar to the Holman Christian Standard Bible:
This is according to the purpose of the ages, which He made in the Messiah, Jesus our Lord.
The Greek word means the “setting forth of a thing, placing of it in view.” The consequence of what is set forth is not inherent in the word. What is set forth could fail, or it could be successful. Likewise, with the English words “plan” and “purpose”. A man can plan something and it may fail. A man may have purpose regarding something, and yet he could fail in his purpose. On the other hand, nothing God plans or purposes will fail; the choice of the use of either the word “plan” or of the word “purpose” in English does not change that.
Some alleged “thought for thought” translations render it similar to the “New Century Version”:
This agrees with the purpose God had since the beginning of time, and he carried out his plan through Christ Jesus our Lord.
The “thought” here of the “beginning of time”, however, appears to be more of man's thoughts, rather than what Paul actually thought when he wrote this verse. The idea of “the beginning of time” has be actually created by thinking beyond what Paul actually wrote, and then the thought has to be added to, and read into the verse. The Greek makes no reference to the “beginning of time.”
We believe that the fact that the plural form, aiōnōn (ages), is used is important. This does speak of more than one “age”, and thus it does indeed suggest a progression in the application of God's plan, as one age begins and ends and is replaced by another age.
Questions: Why should we believe that the Diaglott is more accurate than the way most of the other translations render this verse? Does the Greek phrase transliterated above as “prothesin (Strong's 4286) twn (Strong's 3588) aiwnwn (Strong's 165)” refer to simply to eternity, or is it referring to various “ages”. Should “aiwnwn” be rendered as “ages” or “eternal”, and why? Why does it not really matter if “prothesin” (Strong's 4286) is rendered in English as “plan” or “purpose.”?
Online references (we do not necessarily agree with all presented by these sources:
Bible Hub Greek analysis of Ephesians 3:11
Most Holy Faith Links for Ephesians 3:11:
Links to various translations of this verse:
https://www.biblestudytools.com/ephesians/3-11-compare.html
https://biblehub.com/ephesians/3-11.htm
https://www.godtube.com/bible/ephesians/3-11

The illustration used on the Studies books, as given, however, is not the same as any symbol we have been able to find of any sun-god. Obviously, the symbol is meant to be an illustration of the “sun of righteouness” as depicted in the Malachi 4:2. It is in reference to the coming day when Jesus and the saints will shine as the sun. -- Daniel 12:3; Matthew 13:43; Revelation 20:6.
For more related to this, see our page on Russell and Sun Symbolism
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We hope, God willing, to discuss all paragraphs of Volume 1, as time permits. Ronald R. Day, Sr.
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